NU606 2020 May Week 15 Quiz Latest (100% Graded)
Week 15 Quiz
Question 1A diagnostic test that measures the electrical charge of muscle contraction and can help differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disease is a/an
Question 2A large burn area predisposes to decreased blood pressure because
a.bleeding occurs under the burn surface
b.the heart is damaged by toxic materials from the burn
c.fluid and protein shift out of the blood
d.vasoconstriction occurs in the burn area
Question 3A sprain is a tear in a
Question 4Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the
a.sweat glands of the upper body
b.dermis and epidermis of the skin
d.sebaceous glands and hair follicles
Question 5All of the following predispose to osteoporosis except
b.a sedentary lifestyle
c.long-term intake of glucocorticoids
Question 6An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is
b.juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)
Question 7Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following except
b.disease requiring certain prescription drugs
c.easy access to many kinds of drugs
d.increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress
e.increased work productivity
Question 8Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo
a.Large, red, painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
b.Small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
c.Red, swollen, painful areas often with projecting red streaks
d.Firm, raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Question 9Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following except
c.loss of motor coordination
d.altered personality and amnesia
Question 10Ewing sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the
Question 11Granulation tissue is best described as
a.highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection
b.an erosion through the wall of viscera, leading to complications
c.a type of adhesion with no vascularization
d.a form of stenosis, in a duct, that is extremely tough and resists attack by microbes
Question 12How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
a.Pruritus in hairy areas of the body
b.Loss of blood due to lice bites
c.Finding lice in clothing
d.The presence of nits at the base of hair shafts
Question 13How is Duchenne muscular dystrophy inherited?
a.Autosomal recessive gene
b.X-linked recessive gene
c.Autosomal dominant gene
Question 14Hypermetabolism is common with major burns because of
a.increased heat loss from the burn wound
b.demand for tissue repair
c.recurrent stress response
d.All of the above
Question 15Identify the proper sequence in the healing process
a.A blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels develop; phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar
b.A blood clot forms; phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar
c.Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; angiogenesis takes place; and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes
d.Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; a blood clot forms; granulation tissue grows into the gap; new blood vessels form; and collagen fibers grow and cross-link
Question 16In normal capillary exchange, what is net hydrostatic pressure based on?
a.The difference between the hydrostatic pressures within the capillary, as compared with the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid
b.The relative osmotic pressures in the blood and the interstitial fluid
c.The difference between the hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure within the capillary
d.The difference between the concentrations of blood cells, plasma proteins, and dissolved substances in the blood and the interstitial fluid
Question 17Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by
a.causing enzymes to be released that travel to other joints
b.bacteria traveling from the affected join to a healthy one through the bloodstream
c.inflammation and edema affecting the entire limb
d.the affected individual's exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one
Question 18Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the
a.retina and ciliary process
b.lens and ciliary body
c.iris and cornea
d.iris and lens
Question 19Paget disease often leads to which of the following?
a.A reduction in bone fractures
b.Decreased intracranial pressure
d.Disintegration of joint cartilage
Question 20Potential complications after healing by scar formation include all the following except
a.lack of sensory function in the area
b.contractures and adhesions
c.increased hair growth
Question 21Rickets results from
a.excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts
b.a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates
c.replacement of bone by fibrous tissue
Question 22Sensory receptors that provide information about body movement, orientation, or muscle stretch are referred to as
Question 23Synergism can cause an emergency situation when
a.antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly
b.a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken
c.a large dose of a drug affects the CNS
d.an individual involuntarily develops a habit
Question 24The advantages of applying a biosynthetic skin substitute to a large area of full-thickness burns include
1. reduced risk of infection.
2. decreased loss of plasma protein and fluid.
3. developing stronger fibrous scar tissue.
4. more rapid healing.
5. regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles.
c.1, 2, 4
d.2, 3, 5
Question 25The characteristic appearance of a full-thickness burn is
a.painful with multiple blisters
c.red with some swelling
d.dry, firm, charred, or hard white surface
Question 26The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as
Question 27The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for
a.balance and equilibrium
b.hearing in the upper frequency range
c.hearing in the lower frequency range
d.balancing the pressure in the auditory canal
Question 28Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include
b.dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D
c.transplants of osteoblasts
d.avoidance of all hormones
Question 29Trachoma is an eye infection caused by
Question 30What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
a.Movement of the eyeball
b.Size of the lens
c.Size of the pupil
d.Shape of the lens
Question 31What is a common indication of substance abuse?
d.Loss of sensory function
Question 32What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?
Question 33What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
a.Decreases over time
b.Quite severe in the early stages
c.Aggravated by general muscle aching
d.Increased with weight-bearing and activity
Question 34What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
a.Degenerative disorder involving the small joints
b.Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
c.Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
d.Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs
Question 35What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?
a.Joint pain and stiffness throughout the body
b.Degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs
c.Localized areas of constant pain
d.Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
Question 36What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma?
b.Presence of nevi (moles) on the skin
c.Exposure to ultraviolet light
d.Frequent hypersensitivity reactions
Question 37What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
a.The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
b.The wider joint space
c.Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
d.Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
Question 38Which disease is considered an autoimmune disorder?
Question 39Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc?
Question 40Which lesion distinguishes tinea corporis?
a.Small, brown pruritic lines
b.Painful and pruritic fissures
c.Erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center
d.Firm, red, painful nodule or pustule
Question 41Which of the following applies to actinic keratoses?
a.They predispose to malignant melanoma
b.They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation
c.They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons
d.They are malignant and invasive
Question 42Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
a.Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
b.Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
c.Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
d.Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
Question 43Which of the following describes a Colles' fracture?
a.The distal radius is broken
b.The distal fibula is broken
c.A vertebra appears crushed
d.A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone
Question 44Which of the following factors has contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi sarcoma?
a.Lack of sufficient sun exposure
b.Excessive sun exposure
c.Increase in immunosuppressed individuals
d.Presence of more seborrheic keratosis
Question 45Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?
c.Discoid lupus erythematosus
Question 46Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?
a.Painless blurring of vision
b.Eye pain, halos around lights, and nausea
c.Progressive loss of central vision
d.No pain, development of a dark area in the visual field
Question 47Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
a.Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints
b.Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints
c.It progresses bilaterally through the small joints
d.There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints
Question 48Which of the following is true about Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
a.There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age
b.It involves only the legs and pelvis
c.Skeletal muscle atrophy can be seen in the legs of a toddler
d.It cannot be detected in any carriers
Question 49Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?
a.A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
c.Mild trauma to the toes
d.Development of a tophus
Question 50Which of the following promotes rapid healing?
a.Closely approximated edges of a wound
b.Presence of foreign material
c.Exposure to radiation
d.Vasoconstriction in the involved area
Question 51Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
Question 52Which of the following statements does not apply to osteoporosis?
a.Bone resorption is greater than bone formation
b.It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae
c.Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder
d.It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height
Question 53Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
a.Levels of androgens
b.Abnormally thin epiphyseal plate seen on x-ray
c.Lack of a broader pelvis in males
d.Development of kyphosis
Question 54Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1. It involves the conjunctiva.
2. It is highly contagious.
3. It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
4. It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss
d.1, 2, 3
Question 55 Which statement applies to the recommended emergency care for burns?
a.Drop and lie completely still on your back
b.Call a neighbor for help if the burn appears to be extensive
c.Apply lotion and cover burn tightly with a sheet or towel
d.Cover the burn area with clean, cool, or tepid water and remove nonsticking clothing
Question 56Which type of microbe causes tinea infections?
Question 57Why does vertigo occur with Ménière syndrome?
a.Fluid is lost from the inner ear
b.Increased blood pressure causes edema in the middle and inner ears
c.Damage occurs to the vestibular branch of the auditory nerve
d.Excessive endolymph impairs the function of hair cells in the labyrinth