Walden NURS3020 2020 January All Quizzes Latest

NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 2 Quiz

Question 1The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing staff on the epidermal layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The epidermis is:

Answers:            

a. Highly vascular.

b. Thick and tough.

c. Thin and nonstratified.

d. Replaced every 4 weeks.

Question 2The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing staff on the dermis layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The dermis:

Answers:            

a. Contains mostly fat cells.

b. Consists mostly of keratin.

c. Is replaced every 4 weeks.

d. Contains sensory receptors.

Question 3The nurse is examining a patient who tells the nurse, “I sure sweat a lot, especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have an odor.” The nurse knows that this condition could be related to:

Answers:            

a. Eccrine glands.

b. Apocrine glands.

c. Disorder of the stratum corneum.

d. Disorder of the stratum germinativum.

Question 4A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby checkup. The nurse observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss because of which of these factors?

Answers:            

a. Subcutaneous fat deposits are high in the newborn.

b. Sebaceous glands are overproductive in the newborn.

c. The newborn’s skin is more permeable than that of the adult.

d. The amount of vernixcaseosa dramatically rises in the newborn.

Question 5The nurse is aware that the four areas in the body where lymph nodes are accessible are the:

Answers:            

a. Head, breasts, groin, and abdomen.

b. Arms, breasts, inguinal area, and legs.

c. Head and neck, arms, breasts, and axillae.

d. Head and neck, arms, inguinal area, and axillae.

Question 6A patient’s thyroid gland is enlarged, and the nurse is preparing to auscultate the thyroid gland for the presence of a bruit. A bruit is a __________ sound that is heard best with the __________ of the stethoscope.

Answers:            

a. Low gurgling; diaphragm

b. Loud, whooshing, blowing; bell

c. Soft, whooshing, pulsatile; bell

d. High-pitched tinkling; diaphragm

Question 7The nurse is testing a patient’s visual accommodation, which refers to which action?

Answers:            

a. Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object

b. Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object

c. Changes in peripheral vision in response to light

d. Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light

Question 8A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes that this reflex indicates that:

Answers:            

a. The eyes converge to focus on the light.

b. Light is reflected at the same spot in both eyes.

c. The eye focuses the image in the center of the pupil.

d. Constriction of both pupils occurs in response to bright light.

Question 9A mother asks when her newborn infant’s eyesight will be developed. The nurse should reply:

Answers:            

a. “Vision is not totally developed until 2 years of age.”

b. “Infants develop the ability to focus on an object at approximately 8 months of age.”

c. “By approximately 3 months of age, infants develop more coordinated eye movements and can fixate on an object.”

d. “Most infants have uncoordinated eye movements for the first year of life.”

Question 10The nurse is reviewing in age-related changes in the eye for a class. Which of these physiologic changes is responsible for presbyopia?

Answers:            

a. Degeneration of the cornea

b. Loss of lens elasticity

c. Decreased adaptation to darkness

d. Decreased distance vision abilities

Question 11Which of these assessment findings would the nurse expect to see when examining the eyes of a black patient?

Answers:            

a. Increased night vision

b. Dark retinal background

c. Increased photosensitivity

d. Narrowed palpebral fissures

Question 12When performing an otoscopic examination of a 5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in color and that air bubbles are visible behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this information is that the child:

Answers:            

a. Most likely has serous otitis media.

b. Has an acute purulent otitis media.

c. Has evidence of a resolving cholesteatoma.

d. Is experiencing the early stages of perforation.

Question 13The nurse needs to pull the portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin down and back when administering eardrops. This portion of the ear is called the:

Answers:            

a. Auricle.

b. Concha.

c. Outer meatus.

d. Mastoid process.

Question 14The nurse is examining a patient’s ears and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about cerumenis ?

Answers:            

a. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of infection.

b. The presence of cerumen is indicative of poor hygiene.

c. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear.

d. Cerumen is necessary for transmitting sound through the auditory canal.

Question 15When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse notes that the tympanic membrane should appear:

Answers:            

a. Light pink with a slight bulge.

b. Pearly gray and slightly concave.

c. Pulled in at the base of the cone of light.

d. Whitish with a small fleck of light in the superior portion.

 

Question 16The nurse is reviewing the structures of the ear. Which of these statements concerning the eustachian tube is true?

Answers:            

a. The eustachian tube is responsible for the production of cerumen.

b. It remains open except when swallowing or yawning.

c. The eustachian tube allows passage of air between the middle and outer ear.

d. It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.

Question 17A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse, “What does the middle ear do?” The nurse responds by telling the patient that the middle ear functions to:

Answers:            

a. Maintain balance.

b. Interpret sounds as they enter the ear.

c. Conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear.

d. Increase amplitude of sound for the inner ear to function.

Question 18The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:

Answers:            

a. Warm the inhaled air.

b. Filter out dust and bacteria.

c. Filter coarse particles from inhaled air.

d. Facilitate the movement of air through the nares.

Question 19The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:

Answers:            

a. Meatus.

b. Septum.

c. Turbinates.

d. Kiesselbach plexus.

Question 20The nurse is reviewing the development of the newborn infant. Regarding the sinuses, which statement is true in relation to a newborn infant?

Answers:            

a. Sphenoid sinuses are full size at birth.

b. Maxillary sinuses reach full size after puberty.

c. Frontal sinuses are fairly well developed at birth.

d. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only sinuses present at birth.

Question 21The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth is the:

Answers:            

a. Uvula.

b. Palate.

c. Papillae.

d. Frenulum.

Question 22The salivary gland that is the largest and located in the cheek in front of the ear is the _________ gland.

Answers:            

a.Parotid

b. Stensen’s

c. Sublingual

d. Submandibular

Question 23In assessing the tonsils of a 30 year old, the nurse notices that they are involuted, granular in appearance, and appear to have deep crypts. What is  response to these findings?

Answers:            

a. Refer the patient to a throat specialist.

b. No response is needed; this appearance is normal for the tonsils.

c. Continue with the assessment, looking for any other abnormal findings.

d. Obtain a throat culture on the patient for possible streptococcal (strep) infection.

Question 24The nurse is obtaining a health history on a 3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states, “I think she is getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot.” The nurse’s best response would be:

Answers:            

a. “You’re right, drooling is usually a sign of the first tooth.”

b. “It would be unusual for a 3 month old to be getting her first tooth.”

c. “This could be the sign of a problem with the salivary glands.”

d. “She is just starting to salivate and hasn’t learned to swallow the saliva.”

Question 25The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient. Which of these findings would be expected for this patient?

Answers:            

a. Hypertrophy of the gums

b. Increased production of saliva

c. Decreased ability to identify odors

d. Finer and less prominent nasa

 

NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 3 Quiz

Question 1When performing a respiratory assessment on a patient, the nurse notices a costal angle of approximately 90 degrees. This characteristic is:

Answers:            

a. Observed in patients with kyphosis.

b. Indicative of pectusexcavatum.

c. A normal finding in a healthy adult.

d. An expected finding in a patient with a barrel chest.

Question 2When assessing a patient’s lungs, the nurse recalls that the left lung:

Answers:            

a. Consists of two lobes.

b. Is divided by the horizontal fissure.

c. Primarily consists of an upper lobe on the posterior chest.

d. Is shorter than the right lung because of the underlying stomach.

Question 3The nurse is observing the auscultation technique of another nurse. The  method to use when progressing from one auscultatory site on the thorax to another is _______ comparison.

Answers:            

a. Side-to-side

b. Top-to-bottom

c. Posterior-to-anterior

d. Interspace-by-interspace

Question 4When auscultating the lungs of an adult patient, the nurse notes that low-pitched, soft breath sounds are heard over the posterior lower lobes, with inspiration being longer than expiration. The nurse interprets that these sounds are:

Answers:            

a. Normally auscultated over the trachea.

b. Bronchial breath sounds and normal in that location.

c. Vesicular breath sounds and normal in that location.

d. Bronchovesicularbreath sounds and normal in that location.

Question 5The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of these?

Answers:            

a. Vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → pulmonary artery → left atrium → left ventricle

b. Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle

c. Aorta → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → vena cava

d. Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein → lungs → pulmonary artery → left atrium → left ventricle

Question 6A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical examination. During the recording of his health history, the patient states that he has been having difficulty sleeping. “I’ll be sleeping great, and then I wake up and feel like I can’t get my breath.” The nurse’s best response to this would be:

Answers:            

a. “When was your last electrocardiogram?”

b. “It’s probably because it’s been so hot at night.”

c. “Do you have any history of problems with your heart?”

d. “Have you had a recent sinus infection or upper respiratory infection?”

Question 7In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease, which would the nurse want to include when taking a history?

Answers:            

a. Family history, hypertension, stress, and age

b. Personality type, high cholesterol, diabetes, and smoking

c. Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol

d. Alcohol consumption, obesity, diabetes, stress, and high cholesterol

Question 8The mother of a 3-month-old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning, the nurse finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short time, hungry again. What other information would the nurse want to have?

Answers:            

a. Infant’s sleeping position

b. Sibling history of eating disorders

c. Amount of background noise when eating

d. Presence of dyspnea or diaphoresis when sucking

Question 9In assessing the carotid arteries of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the nurse would:

Answers:            

a. Palpate the artery in the upper one third of the neck.

b. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits.

c. Simultaneously palpate both arteries to compare amplitude.

d. Instruct the patient to take slow deep breaths during auscultation.

Question 10Which statement is true regarding the arterial system?

Answers:            

a. Arteries are large-diameter vessels.

b. The arterial system is a high-pressure system.

c. The walls of arteries are thinner than those of the veins.

d. Arteries can greatly expand to accommodate a large blood volume increase.

Question 11The nurse is reviewing the blood supply to the arm. The major artery supplying the arm is the _____ artery.

Answers:            

a. Ulnar

b. Radial

c. Brachial

d. Deep palmar

Question 12The nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalispedis artery. Where is the  location for palpation?

Answers:            

a. Behind the knee

b. Over the lateral malleolus

c. In the groove behind the medial malleolus

d. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe

Question 13The nurse is teaching a review class on the lymphatic system. A participant shows  understanding of the material with which statement?

Answers:            

a. “Lymph flow is propelled by the contraction of the heart.”

b. “The flow of lymph is slow, compared with that of the blood.”

c. “One of the functions of the lymph is to absorb lipids from the biliary tract.”

d. “Lymph vessels have no valves; therefore, lymph fluid flows freely from the tissue spaces into the bloodstream.”

Question 14When performing an assessment of a patient, the nurse notices the presence of an enlarged right epitrochlear lymph node. What should the nurse do next?

Answers:            

a. Assess the patient’s abdomen, and notice any tenderness.

b. Carefully assess the cervical lymph nodes, and check for any enlargement.

c. Ask additional health history questions regarding any recent ear infections or sore throats.

d. Examine the patient’s lower arm and hand, and check for the presence of infection or lesions.

Question 15A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic for an infection in his left foot. Which of these findings should the nurse expect to see during an assessment of this patient?

Answers:            

a. Hard and fixed cervical nodes

b. Enlarged and tender inguinal nodes

c. Bilateral enlargement of the popliteal nodes

d. Pelletlike nodes in the supraclavicular region

Question 16The nurse is examining the lymphatic system of a healthy 3-year-old child. Which finding should the nurse expect?

Answers:            

a. Excessive swelling of the lymph nodes

b. Presence of palpable lymph nodes

c. No palpable nodes because of the immature immune system of a child

d. Fewer numbers and a smaller size of lymph nodes compared with those of an adult

Question 17During an assessment of an older adult, the nurse should expect to notice which finding as a normal physiologic change associated with the aging process?

Answers:            

a. Hormonal changes causing vasodilation and a resulting drop in blood pressure

b. Progressive atrophy of the intramuscular calf veins, causing venous insufficiency

c. Peripheral blood vessels growing more rigid with age, producing a rise in systolic blood pressure

d. Narrowing of the inferior vena cava, causing low blood flow and increases in venous pressure resulting in varicosities

Question 18A 67-year-old patient states that he recently began to have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment. This pain is relieved by sitting for approximately 2 minutes; then he is able to resume his activities. The nurse interprets that this patient is most likely experiencing:

Answers:            

a. Claudication.

b. Sore muscles.

c. Muscle cramps.

d. Venous insufficiency.

Question 19A patient has been diagnosed with venous stasis. Which of these findings would the nurse most likely observe?

Answers:            

a. Unilateral cool foot

b. Thin, shiny, atrophic skin

c. Pallor of the toes and cyanosis of the nail beds

d. Brownish discoloration to the skin of the lower leg

Question 20The nurse is attempting to assess the femoral pulse in a patient who is obese. Which of these actions would be most appropriate?

Answers:            

a. The patient is asked to assume a prone position.

b. The patient is asked to bend his or her knees to the side in a froglike position.

c. The nurse firmly presses against the bone with the patient in a semi-Fowler position.

d. The nurse listens with a stethoscope for pulsations; palpating the pulse in an obese person is extremely difficult.

Question 21When auscultating over a patient’s femoral arteries, the nurse notices the presence of a bruit on the left side. The nurse knows that bruits:

Answers:            

a. Are often associated with venous disease.

b. Occur in the presence of lymphadenopathy.

c. In the femoral arteries are caused by hypermetabolic states.

d. Occur with turbulent blood flow, indicating partial occlusion.

Question 22The sac that surrounds and protects the heart is called the:

Answers:            

a. Pericardium.

b. Myocardium.

c. Endocardium.

d. Pleural space.

Question 23During an examination of the anterior thorax, the nurse is aware that the trachea bifurcates anteriorly at the:

Answers:            

a. Costal angle.

b. Sternal angle.

c. Xiphoid process.

d. Suprasternal notch.

Question 24During an assessment, the nurse knows that expected assessment findings in the normal adult lung include the presence of:

Answers:            

a. Adventitious sounds and limited chest expansion.

b. Increased tactile fremitus and dull percussion tones.

c. Muffled voice sounds and symmetric tactile fremitus.

d. Absent voice sounds and hyperresonant percussion tones.

Question 25The primary muscles of respiration include the:

Answers:            

a. Diaphragm and intercostals.

b. Sternomastoids and scaleni.

c. Trapezii and rectus abdominis.

d. External obliques and pectoralis major.

 

NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 4 Quiz

Question 1The nurse is percussing the seventh right intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the liver. Which sound should the nurse expect to hear?

Answers:            

a. Dullness

b. Tympany

c. Resonance

d. Hyperresonance

Question 2Which structure is located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen?

Answers:            

a. Liver

b. Duodenum

c. Gallbladder

d. Sigmoid colon

Question 3A patient is having difficulty swallowing medications and food. The nurse would document that this patient has:

Answers:            

a. Aphasia.

b. Dysphasia.

c. Dysphagia.

d. Anorexia.

Question 4The nurse suspects that a patient has a distended bladder. How should the nurse assess for this condition?

Answers:            

a. Percuss and palpate in the lumbar region.

b. Inspect and palpate in the epigastric region.

c. Auscultate and percuss in the inguinal region.

d. Percuss and palpate the midline area above the suprapubic bone.

Question 5The nurse is aware that one change that may occur in the gastrointestinal system of an aging adult is:

Answers:            

a. Increased salivation.

b. Increased liver size.

c. Increased esophageal emptying.

d. Decreased gastric acid secretion.

Question 6A 22-year-old man comes to the clinic for an examination after falling off his motorcycle and landing on his left side on the handle bars. The nurse suspects that he may have injured his spleen. Which of these statements is true regarding assessment of the spleen in this situation?

Answers:            

a. The spleen can be enlarged as a result of trauma.

b. The spleen is normally felt on routine palpation.

c. If an enlarged spleen is noted, then the nurse should thoroughly palpate to determine its size.

d. An enlarged spleen should not be palpated because it can easily rupture.

Question 7A patient’s abdomen is bulging and stretched in appearance. The nurse should describe this finding as:

Answers:            

a. Obese.

b. Herniated.

c. Scaphoid.

d. Protuberant.

Question 8The nurse is describing a scaphoid abdomen. To the horizontal plane, a scaphoid contour of the abdomen depicts a ______ profile.

Answers:            

a. Flat

b. Convex

c. Bulging

d. Concave

Question 9While examining a patient, the nurse observes abdominal pulsations between the xiphoid process and umbilicus. The nurse would suspect that these are:

Answers:            

a. Pulsations of the renal arteries.

b. Pulsations of the inferior vena cava.

c. Normal abdominal aortic pulsations.

d. Increased peristalsis from a bowel obstruction.

Question 10A patient has hypoactive bowel sounds. The nurse knows that a potential cause of hypoactive bowel sounds is:

Answers:            

a. Diarrhea.

b. Peritonitis.

c. Laxative use.

d. Gastroenteritis.

Question 11The nurse is watching a new graduate nurse perform auscultation of a patient’s abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a  understanding of the reason auscultation precedes percussion and palpation of the abdomen?

Answers:

a. “We need to determine the areas of tenderness before using percussion and palpation.”

b. “Auscultation prevents distortion of bowel sounds that might occur after percussion and palpation.”

c. “Auscultation allows the patient more time to relax and therefore be more comfortable with the physical examination.”

d. “Auscultation prevents distortion of vascular sounds, such as bruits and hums, that might occur after percussion and palpation.”

Question 12The nurse is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is true of bowel sounds? Bowel sounds:

Answers:            

a. Are usually loud, high-pitched, rushing, and tinkling sounds.

b. Are usually high-pitched, gurgling, and irregular sounds.

c. Sound like two pieces of leather being rubbed together.

d. Originate from the movement of air and fluid through the large intestine.

Question 13The physician comments that a patient has abdominal borborygmi. The nurse knows that this term refers to:

Answers:            

a. Loud continual hum.

b. Peritoneal friction rub.

c. Hypoactive bowel sounds.

d. Hyperactive bowel sounds.

Question 14During an abdominal assessment, the nurse would consider which of these findings as normal?

Answers:            

a. Presence of a bruit in the femoral area

b. Tympanic percussion note in the umbilical region

c. Palpable spleen between the ninth and eleventh ribs in the left midaxillary line

d. Dull percussion note in the left upper quadrant at the midclavicular line

Question 15The nurse is assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman who is complaining of having “acid indigestion” all the time. The nurse knows that esophageal reflux during pregnancy can cause:

Answers:            

a. Diarrhea.

b. Pyrosis.

c. Dysphagia.

d. Constipation.

Question 16The nurse is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:

Answers:            

a. Flatness, resonance, and dullness.

b. Resonance, dullness, and tympany.

c. Tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness.

d. Resonance, hyperresonance, and flatness.

Question 17An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The nurse knows that this condition could be related to:

Answers:            

a. Increased gastric acid secretion.

b. Decreased gastric acid secretion.

c. Delayed gastrointestinal emptying time.

d. Increased gastrointestinal emptying time.

Question 18A patient is complaining of a sharp pain along the costovertebral angles. The nurse is aware that this symptom is most often indicative of:

Answers:            

a. Ovary infection.

b. Liver enlargement.

c. Kidney inflammation.

d. Spleen enlargement.

Question 19When assessing a patient’s nutritional status, the nurse recalls that the best definition of optimal nutritional status is sufficient nutrients that:

Answers:            

a. Are in excess of daily body requirements.

b. Provide for the minimum body needs.

c. Provide for daily body requirements but do not support increased metabolic demands.

d. Provide for daily body requirements and support increased metabolic demands.

Question 20The nurse is providing nutrition information to the mother of a 1-year-old child. Which of these statements represents accurate information for this age group?

Answers:            

a. Maintaining adequate fat and caloric intake is important for a child in this age group.

b. The recommended dietary allowances for an infant are the same as for an adolescent.

c. The baby’s growth is minimal at this age; therefore, caloric requirements are decreased.

d. The baby should be placed on skim milk to decrease the risk of coronary artery disease when he or she grows older.

Question 21A patient tells the nurse that his food simply does not have any taste anymore. The nurse’s best response would be:

Answers:            

a. “That must be really frustrating.”

b. “When did you first notice this change?”

c. “My food doesn’t always have a lot of taste either.”

d. “Sometimes that happens, but your taste will come back.”

Question 22The nurse is performing a nutritional assessment on a 15-year-old girl who tells the nurse that she is “so fat.” Assessment reveals that she is 5 feet 4 inches and weighs 110 pounds. The nurse’s appropriate response would be:

Answers:            

a. “How much do you think you should weigh?”

b. “Don’t worry about it; you’re not that overweight.”

c. “The best thing for you would be to go on a diet.”

d. “I used to always think I was fat when I was your age.”

Question 23The nurse is discussing appropriate foods with the mother of a 3-year-old child. Which of these foods are recommended?

Answers:            

a. Foods that the child will eat, no matter what they are

b. Foods easy to hold such as hot dogs, nuts, and grapes

c. Any foods, as long as the rest of the family is also eating them

d. Finger foods and nutritious snacks that cannot cause choking

Question 24The nurse is reviewing the nutritional assessment of an 82-year-old patient. Which of these factors will most likely affect the nutritional status of an older adult?

Answers:            

a. Increase in taste and smell

 

b. Living alone on a fixed income

c. Change in cardiovascular status

d. Increase in gastrointestinal motility and absorption

Question 25When considering a nutritional assessment, the nurse is aware that the most common anthropometric measurements include:

Answers:            

a. Height and weight.

b. Leg circumference.

c. Skinfold thickness of the biceps.

d. Hip and waist measurements.

 

NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 5 Quiz

Question 1A patient is being assessed for range-of-joint movement. The nurse asks him to move his arm in toward the center of his body. This movement is called:

Answers:            

a. Flexion.

b. Abduction.

c. Adduction.

d. Extension.

Question 2During an interview the patient states, “I can feel this bump on the top of both of my shoulders—it doesn’t hurt but I am curious about what it might be.” The nurse should tell the patient that it is his:

Answers:            

a. Subacromial bursa.

b. Acromion process.

c. Glenohumeral joint.

d. Greater tubercle of the humerus.

Question 3The nurse is checking the range of motion in a patient’s knee and knows that the knee is capable of which movement(s)?

Answers:            

a. Flexion and extension

b. Supination and pronation

c. Circumduction

d. Inversion and eversion

Question 4The wife of a 65-year-old man tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a change in her husband’s personality and ability to understand. He also cries very easily and becomes angry. The nurse recalls that the cerebral lobe responsible for these behaviors is the __________ lobe.

Answers:            

a. Frontal

b. Parietal

c. Occipital

d. Temporal

Question 5Which statement concerning the areas of the brain is true?

Answers:            

a. The cerebellum is the center for speech and emotions.

b. The hypothalamus controls body temperature and regulates sleep.

c. The basal ganglia are responsible for controlling voluntary movements.

d. Motor pathways of the spinal cord and brainstem synapse in the thalamus.

Question 6The nurse places a key in the hand of a patient and he identifies it as a penny. What term would the nurse use to describe this finding?

Answers:            

a. Extinction

b. Astereognosis

c. Graphesthesia

d. Tactile discrimination

Question 7Which of these tests would the nurse use to check the motor coordination of an 11-month-old infant?

Answers:            

a. Denver II

b. Stereognosis

c. Deep tendon reflexes

d. Rapid alternating movements

Question 8During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: an inability to identify vibrations at her ankle and to identify the position of her big toe, a slower and more deliberate gait, and a slightly impaired tactile sensation. All other neurologic findings are normal. The nurse should interpret that these findings indicate:

Answers:            

a. CN dysfunction.

b. Lesion in the cerebral cortex.

c. Normal changes attributable to aging.

d. Demyelination of nerves attributable to a lesion.

Question 9A 70-year-old woman tells the nurse that every time she gets up in the morning or after she’s been sitting, she gets “really dizzy” and feels like she is going to fall over. The nurse’s best response would be:

Answers:            

a. “Have you been extremely tired lately?”

b. “You probably just need to drink more liquids.”

c. “I’ll refer you for a complete neurologic examination.”

d. “You need to get up slowly when you’ve been lying down or sitting.”

Question 10During the taking of the health history, a patient tells the nurse that “it feels like the room is spinning around me.” The nurse would document this finding as:

Answers:            

a. Vertigo.

b. Syncope.

c. Dizziness.

d. Seizure activity.

Question 11When taking the health history on a patient with a seizure disorder, the nurse assesses whether the patient has an aura. Which of these would be the best question for obtaining this information?

Answers:            

a. “Does your muscle tone seem tense or limp?”

b. “After the seizure, do you spend a lot of time sleeping?”

c. “Do you have any warning sign before your seizure starts?”

d. “Do you experience any color change or incontinence during the seizure?”

Question 12While obtaining a health history of a 3-month-old infant from the mother, the nurse asks about the infant’s ability to suck and grasp the mother’s finger. What is the nurse assessing?

Answers:            

a. Reflexes

b. Intelligence

c. CNs

d. Cerebral cortex function

Question 13In obtaining a health history on a 74-year-old patient, the nurse notes that he drinks alcohol daily and that he has noticed a tremor in his hands that affects his ability to hold things. With this information, what response should the nurse make?

Answers:            

a. “Does your family know you are drinking every day?”

b. “Does the tremor change when you drink alcohol?”

c. “We’ll do some tests to see what is causing the tremor.”

d. “You really shouldn’t drink so much alcohol; it may be causing your tremor.”

Question 14A 50-year-old woman is in the clinic for weakness in her left arm and leg that she has noticed for the past week. The nurse should perform which type of neurologic examination?

Answers:            

a. Glasgow Coma Scale

b. Neurologic recheck examination

c. Screening neurologic examination

d. Complete neurologic examination

Question 15During an assessment of the CNs, the nurse finds the following: asymmetry when the patient smiles or frowns, uneven lifting of the eyebrows, sagging of the lower eyelids, and escape of air when the nurse presses against the right puffed cheek. This would indicate dysfunction of which of these CNs?

Answers:            

a. Motor component of CN IV

b. Motor component of CN VII

c. Motor and sensory components of CN XI

d. Motor component of CN X and sensory component of CN VII

Question 16The nurse is explaining the mechanism of the growth of long bones to a mother of a toddler. Where does lengthening of the bones occur?

Answers:            

a. Bursa

b. Calcaneus

c. Epiphyses

d. Tuberosities

Question 17A woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a change in her posture and is having lower back pain. The nurse tells her that during pregnancy, women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. This shift in posture is known as:

Answers:            

a. Lordosis.

b. Scoliosis.

c. Ankylosis.

d. Kyphosis.

Question 18An 85-year-old patient comments during his annual physical examination that he seems to be getting shorter as he ages. The nurse should explain that decreased height occurs with aging because:

Answers:            

a. Long bones tend to shorten with age.

b. The vertebral column shortens.

c. A significant loss of subcutaneous fat occurs.

d. A thickening of the intervertebral disks develops.

Question 19A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and asks the nurse, “What is osteoporosis?” The nurse explains that osteoporosis is defined as:

Answers:            

a. Increased bone matrix.

b. Loss of bone density.

c. New, weaker bone growth.

d. Increased phagocytic activity.

Question 20A 45-year-old woman is at the clinic for a mental status assessment. In giving her the Four Unrelated Words Test, the nurse would be concerned if she could not ____ four unrelated words ____.

Answers:            

a. Invent; within 5 minutes

b. Invent; within 30 seconds

c. Recall; after a 30-minute delay

d. Recall; after a 60-minute delay

Question 21During the neurologic assessment of a “healthy” 35-year-old patient, the nurse asks him to relax his muscles completely. The nurse then moves each extremity through full range of motion. Which of these results would the nurse expect to find?

 

Answers:            

a. Firm, rigid resistance to movement

b. Mild, even resistance to movement

c. Hypotonic muscles as a result of total relaxation

d. Slight pain with some directions of movement

Question 22When the nurse asks a 68-year-old patient to stand with his feet together and arms at his side with his eyes closed, he starts to sway and moves his feet farther apart. The nurse would document this finding as:

Answers:            

a. Ataxia.

b. Lack of coordination.

c. Negative Homans sign.

d. Positive Romberg sign.

Question 23The nurse is performing an assessment on a 29-year-old woman who visits the clinic complaining of “always dropping things and falling down.” While testing rapid alternating movements, the nurse notices that the woman is unable to pat both of her knees. Her response is extremely slow and she frequently misses. What should the nurse suspect?

Answers:            

a. Vestibular disease

b. Lesion of CN IX

c. Dysfunction of the cerebellum

d. Inability to understand directions

Question 24During the taking of the health history of a 78-year-old man, his wife states that he occasionally has problems with short-term memory loss and confusion: “He can’t even remember how to button his shirt.” When assessing his sensory system, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Answers:            

a. The nurse would not test the sensory system as part of the examination because the results would not be valid.

b. The nurse would perform the tests, knowing that mental status does not affect sensory ability.

c. The nurse would proceed with an explanation of each test, making certain that the wife understands.

d. Before testing, the nurse would assess the patient’s mental status and ability to follow directions.

Question 25During an assessment of a 62-year-old man, the nurse notices the patient has a stooped posture, shuffling walk with short steps, flat facial expression, and pill-rolling finger movements. These findings would be consistent with:

Answers:            

a. Parkinsonism.

b. Cerebral palsy.

c. Cerebellar ataxia.

d. Muscular dystrophy.