Saintleo PRM520 2019 MAY Final Exam Latest

PRM520 Monitoring, Controlling, and Closing Projects

Final Exam

Question 1 ADR includes which of the following?

a) Arbitration

 b) Negotiation

 c) Change requests

 d) Litigation

Question 2 Agreements are an output from the __________ process.

a) Control Procurements

 b) Plan Procurements

 c) Close Procurements

d) Conduct Procurements

Question 3 Which is not a data input to the Control Procurements process?

 a) Develop Project Management Plan

 b) Direct and Manage Project Work

 c) Perform Integrated Change Control

d) Identify Risks

Question 4 Seller performance documentation is performed by:

 a) the seller.

 b) the contract administrator.

 c) the end user.

d) the buyer.

Question 5 Selected sellers are:

 a) low bidders on the contract.

 b) vendors who bring value through their offerings.

c) those who have negotiated a draft contract.

d) sellers who meet performance requirements.

Question 6          Why are contracts often subject to a more formal review than other project documents?

a) To verify the scope meets what is needed

b) The legally binding nature of contracts

c) To prevent costly change orders

d) To be fair to all potential vendors

Question 7 The processes of recording the results of executing the quality activities are performed in the ____________ process group.

a) Initiating

b) Planning

c) Executing

d) Monitoring and Controlling

Question 8          Quality metrics:

a) are measurements from Perform Quality Assurance.

b) are measurements from Control Quality Assurance.

c) specifically describe product attributes.

 d) are control limits for processes.

Question 9 The SIPOC model is most closely related to:

a) flow charts.

 b) histograms.

 c) control charts.

 d) scatter diagrams.

Question 10        Which is used to identify best practices?

 a) SIPOC model

b) Benchmarking

 c) Design of experiments

 d) Statistical sampling

Question 11        The Control Quality provides outputs to __________ Process Group(s):

 a) the Initiating

b) the Planning

 c) the Closing

 d) all

Question 12        Which is a key benefit of the Control Quality process?

a) Provides the means to recognize deviation from the plan

 b) Reduces rework

c) Identifies the causes of poor process quality

 d) Makes changes to the Project Management Plan

Question 13 The tools and techniques for the Monitor Communications process include:

 a) expert judgment

 b) information management systems

 c) meetings

d) all of the above

Question 14 The key benefit of Monitor Stakeholder Engagement Process is it will:

 a) facilitate consensus toward project objectives.

 b) influence people to support the project.

 c) modify organizational behavior to accept the project outcomes.

d) maintain or increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement.

Question 15        Project documents for Monitor Stakeholder Engagement originate from all of the following process groups except:

 a) Initiating.

 b) Planning.

 

c) Executing.

d) Closing.

Question 17 Which is a key benefit of the Monitor Risk process?

 a) Provides the means to recognize deviation from the risk plan

b) Continuously optimizes risk responses

 c) Identifies the causes of risks

 d) Makes changes to the Project Management Plan

Question 18        The Monitor Risk process receives inputs from and provides outputs to the ___________ process.

 a) Validate Scope

 b) Perform Quality Assurance

 c) Direct and Manage Project Work

d) Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 19 Risk audits examine and document:

a) changes to the risk register.

b) the risk management plan.

 c) variances and trends.

d) the effectiveness of risk responses.

Question 20 Risk register updates may include outcomes of the following except:

 a) risk assessments.

 b) risk audits.

 c) risk reviews.

d) work performance data.