APU HRMT 200 HRMT200 Midterm 2015

Question 1 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 PointsDownsizing: A.can be used to strengthen the social networks in the organization. B.refers to the planned elimination of personnel. C.is useful in improving long-term organizational effectiveness. D.would reduce an organization's short-term competitiveness.
Answer Key: BQuestion 2 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

The primary reason organizations engage in downsizing is to: A.strengthen the social networks in the organization. B.thwart unionizing efforts within a given facility. C.attain larger profit margins. D.promote future competitiveness.
Answer Key: DQuestion 3 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of allowing workers to choose a buyout package in exchange for leaving? A.Most of the workers will be reluctant to accept such an offer. B.Workers with the most experience are most likely to leave. C.It might attract governmental actions. D.It would result in competition among employees to take up the offer.
Answer Key: BQuestion 4 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Early-retirement programs: A.cause more human suffering than the other methods of labor reduction. B.are not a popular way to reduce labor surplus. C.will encourage lower-performing older workers to retire. D.work well for knowledge based jobs and services.
Answer Key: CQuestion 5 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

The most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages are: A.outsourcing work and work sharing. B.hiring temporary workers and outsourcing work. C.retrained transfers and turnover reduction. D.overtime and new external hires.
Answer Key: BQuestion 6 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

Temporary employment is popular with employers because: A.it gives them flexibility in operations. B.it gives them more control over the workforce. C.it is most effective for key customer service jobs. D.the workers will be committed to the organization.
Answer Key: AQuestion 7 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following observations is true of taking the services of independent contractors? A.Core competencies can be effectively outsourced to contractors. B.The company is not supposed to directly supervise the contractors. C.It is a relatively slow process with low revocability. D.The organization can achieve increased quality though the costs are more.
Answer Key: BQuestion 8 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

A reliable test would be one for which scores by people with _____ attributes have a correlation close to ___. A.different; 1.0 B.similar; 0 C.similar; 1.0 D.different; -1.0
Answer Key: CQuestion 9 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which test scores relate to actual job performance. A.reliability B.validity C.generalizability D.utility
Answer Key: BQuestion 10 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

_____ validity is a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores. A.Criterion-related B.Discriminant C.Content D.Convergent
Answer Key: AQuestion 11 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

To test the validity of your selection device for widget makers, you have given it to the present widget makers in your company and correlated it with their latest performance appraisal scores. What type of validation have you used? A.Predictive B.Concurrent C.Construct D.Content
Answer Key: BQuestion 12 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

You, as HR manager of a company, want to know if a certain test of cognitive ability in use in the industry can be successfully used in your organization. In other words, you want to know if this test is a _____ method of personnel selection. A.reliable B.dependable C.practical D.generalizable
Answer Key: DQuestion 13 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews? A.Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process? B.How would you feel about working for someone younger than you? C.Are you a citizen of the United States? D.What religious holidays do you observe?
Answer Key: AQuestion 14 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following may an application form include to gather information about suitable candidates? A.Marital status B.History of disabilities C.Number of children D.Educational background
Answer Key: DQuestion 15 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Computer-based training: A.is generally more expensive than classroom instruction. B.is not easy to customize for specific training needs. C.is low on interactivity. D.gives the company flexibility in scheduling training.
Answer Key: DQuestion 16 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following is a work-study training method that teaches job skills, usually a trade, through a combination of on-the-job training and classroom training? A.Internship B.Coordination training C.Apprenticeship D.Job shadowing
Answer Key: CQuestion 17 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following is an on-the-job training program that is generally sponsored by an educational institution as a component of its academic program and generally prepares students for professional careers? A. Internship B.Coordination training C.Apprenticeship D.Experiential training
Answer Key: AQuestion 18 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

When simulations are conducted online, trainees often participate by creating _____ computer depictions of themselves—which they manipulate onscreen to play roles as workers or other participants in a job-related situation. A.cookies B.griefers C.trolls D.avatars
Answer Key: DQuestion 19 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following statements is true of simulations as a training technique? A.Simulations are inexpensive to develop and maintain. B.Simulators need to have elements identical to those found in the work environment. C.Trainees tend to be unenthusiastic about this type of learning. D.Simulations are a form of on-the-job training.
Answer Key: BQuestion 20 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

_____ reality is a computer-based technology that provides an interactive, three-dimensional learning experience. A.Mediated B.Augmented C.Diminished D.Virtual
Answer Key: DQuestion 21 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

The relevant aspects of employee performance are based on: A.the outcomes of a job analysis. B.the nature of the company's products and services. C.management's beliefs and values. D.aspects of the employee's personality.
Answer Key: AQuestion 22 of 25 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Performance management has a(n) _____ purpose, meaning that it serves as a basis for improving employees' knowledge and skills. A.systematic B.tactical C.administrative D. developmental
Answer Key: DQuestion 23 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

The performance measurement method that assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories is called: A.forced distribution. B.alternation ranking. C.paired comparison. D.optional ranking.
Answer Key: AQuestion 24 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

Which one of the following is NOT a problem associated with the comparative approaches to performance management? A.A simple ranking system leaves the basis for the ranking open to interpretation. B.Managers can give high ratings to all employees to avoid controversy. C.The rankings are not helpful for employee development. D.The rankings may hurt morale or result in legal challenges.
Answer Key: BQuestion 25 of 25 0.0/ 4.0 Points

Which of the following is true of the attribute approaches to performance management? A.They result in high strategic congruence. B.They are difficult to develop. C.They can be applied to a wide variety of jobs and organizations. D.They provide specific guidance and feedback to employees.
Answer Key: C



Part 1 of 1 - 95.0/ 100.0 Points
Question 1 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 PointsPeople spend a considerable part of their working day _________ with others. One of the findings of the early work activity studies (Burns, 1954, 1957; Horn and Lupton, 1965), echoed more recently by Oshagbemi (1988), is that managers and others consistently underestimate the amount of time they spend ... A.relating B.hiding from C.talking about D.misunderstanding

Question 2 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

_________ is a core competence. People who cannot _______ cannot relate. Nichols and Stevens (1957) estimate that 45 per cent of all communication time is spent __________ compared with 30 per cent speaking, 16 per cent reading and 9 per cent writing. Despite the fact that people spend so much time __________, few ever receive any formal training on how to __________ effectively. A.Talking B.listening, listening C.Observing D.selling

Question 3 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

__________ __________is the kind of listening people engage in for pleasure. It might occur when listening to poetry or children playing. It involves the listener seeking out signals or messages that she wants to hear. A.Corrobative listening B.Demonstrative listening C.Appreciative listening D.Explanative listening

Question 4 of 20 0.0/ 5.0 Points

Being aware of one's own _________ _______ can help a person listen more effectively. A.personal filters B.great ideas C.careful observations D.sound beliefs

Question 5 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

The _______ __________ offers a set of pointers to the kinds of behaviour that communicate a sense of presence to the speaker. These need not always be adhered to strictly. They are not rules, rather they are reminders of the importance of non-verbal behaviour. The listener?s body is a vehicle for communication and she should constantly be aware of all the cues and messages she is sending. A.next chapter B.holy books C.SOLER mnemonic D.summer memories

Question 6 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

_____________ _____________ can also be used to regulate the communicative flow between people. The importance of a person?s regulatory skills is reflected by the evaluative statements we often make about others, such as, "talking to him is like talking to a brick wall", "you can't get a word in edgeways" or, "she keeps butting in". A.Non-verbal behaviours B.Meditative insights C.Relaxed approaches D.Open awareness

Question 7 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

One of the most common definitions of the ____________ is "a conversation with a purpose" (Bingham, Moore and Bruce 1942). This is a wide ranging, umbrella-like definition, which encompasses many kinds of purposeful conversations ranging from disciplinary interviews to counselling sessions, and possibly even including negotiations. A.counseling-statement B.meeting C.walk-about D.interview

Question 8 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Psychological factors, such as attitudes, motives and expectations, can also be important sources of __________. The motivation of the interviewer and respondent to engage in the interview might be different. For example, in an appraisal interview the interviewer might be motivated to help the appraisee develop and realize his full potential, and, therefore, might regard seeking accurate information about the appraisee's strengths and weaknesses as an important objective of the interview. A.bias B.motivation C.insight D.agreement

Question 9 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

__________ and motivation can be closely linked. What happens in the early stage of the interview can have important implications for the interviewee?s motivation, which in turn will influence the quantity and quality of information that will be available to the interviewer. Where motivation is low, the respondent may disrupt the interview, may refuse to answer any questions or may give false answers deliberately, thus defeating the interviewer?s purpose. A.Punishment B.Talkativeness C.Rapport D.Culture

Question 10 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

The way in which the interviewer formulates her questions can have an enormous impact on the quantity and quality of information the respondent will disclose. Three aspects of question formulation will be considered here: (_______________), the extent to which the question signals an expected or preferred response (___________), and the degree of freedom given to the respondent to answer (________________). A.(choice of words),(leading questions), (open versus closed questions). B.(choice of methods),(fake questions), (creative questions). C.(insightfullness),(creative questions), (taxonomic questions). D.(choice of ideas),(follow-up questions), (inventive versus known questions).

Question 11 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Introductions that use _________ ____________, pose intriguing problems, include controversial statements or simply offer a concise statement of the purpose of the problem in terms that will appeal to the audience, increase the likelihood that the audience will be motivated to attend to the presenter's message. A.sarcastic sayings B.rhetorical questions C.Factual statements D.mystic notions

Question 12 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

_______ ____ serve three main purposes. They introduce variety and capture people's attention and interest. They can also aid understanding and assist with recall. A.Good jokes B.Moving anecdotes C.Emotional appeals D.Visual aids

Question 13 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

_____________ _____________ theory states that when individuals are subjected to events that are uncontrollable (that is, when the probability of an outcome is the same, irrespective of how they respond) they will develop expectations of non-contingency between response and outcome. A.Assertive trust B.Contingency aspect C.Control Expectation D.Learned helplessness

Question 14 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

_______ is a key skill that builds upon the basic skills discussed elsewhere in this book. It involves letting clients know that they have been understood from within their frame of reference, that the helper can see the world as they see it while remaining separate from it. A.Authority B.Humor C.Empathy D.Persuasiveness

Question 15 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Unless the client thinks about his problem in __________, operational terms it can be difficult to develop an effective problem management strategy. A.concrete B.abstract C.psychological terms D.a selfless way

Question 16 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

The _________ ________ is a model developed by Joseph Luft and Harry Ingham, two American psychologists, which can be used to illustrate the process of giving feedback. A.Feedback Loop B.Mendali Grid C.Psychological Contract D.Johari window

Question 17 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Helpful feedback is ( _____________). In many circumstances people seek feedback. However, although they want to know, they may be fearful of finding out. A.(solicited rather than imposed) B.(mysterious and causes questioning) C.(given so as not to be noticed) D.(sandwiched between criticism)

Question 18 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

The __________ approach fits well with Egan?s integrative approach to problem management. When the client has identified and clarified the problem in concrete terms and determined what a more desirable state of affairs would look like he can specify, again in concrete terms, one goal or a related set of realistic goals. This provides the framework within which he can undertake a __________ analysis. The client can be encouraged to list all the restraining forces that are keeping him from his goal and all the driving forces that are helping him reach his goal. At this stage he should be encouraged to list as many as possible and to make no attempt to list them in order of importance. A.Blak-Mouton grid B.force-field C.Egan Checklist D.Goal-Setting grid

Question 19 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

__________ is a key skill that builds upon the basic skills discussed elsewhere in this book. It involves letting clients know that they have been understood from within their frame of reference, that the helper can see the world as they see it while remaining separate from it. A.observation B.authoritarianism C.Empathy D.Deception

Question 20 of 20 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Blake and Mouton argue that _____ can help clients change their behaviour in a number of ways. A.advice B.criticism C.humiliation D.theory